Dilemma: if a religion IS expressly political and those politics conflict with the laws of the land, what next?
Separation of powers between Church and State is a WESTERN concept. It’s an idea that sprang directly from ‘Christendom’… even the Bible itself. (See Romans 13, among others.)
Ask any Muslim… even a moderate one… whether there should be a separation of Mosque and State, and the idea will seem strange to him. Their religion has no distinction between religious (moral) authority and Civic (and legal) authority.
That puts us in an awkward position. If POLITICAL Islam (including Sharia law) conflicts with the laws of America? What then?
Because their religion explicitly says that the authority of the Koran supersedes any moral or legal authority a nation might have. Allegiance of a Muslim is owed to the Koran alone.
That’s different than, say, the Christian expression of this dynamic.
Christians are subject to the MORAL authority of the Bible but to the LEGAL authority of the land in which they live. If preaching is forbidden, they still preach. But they accept the legal consequences — imprisonment and worse — if the government punishes them for doing so.
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